This is a question often asked. Many people turn to John 1:1, (King James Version) where it reads,"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 10:30, says "I and my Father are one." However, others reason, "How can they be one but two at the same time…can one plus one equal one?"

Jesus is often called the son of God in Scripture. John says in John 1:34, speaking of Jesus, "And I have seen, and have borne witness that this is the Son of God." Jesus himself says that he is the son of God in John 10:36, "…because I said, 'I am the son of God'?"

So, how could Jesus be the son of God and be God? Or is he both? Let's look deeper into the scriptures. Starting with John 10:30, Jesus says, "I and my Father are one." What does this mean? A little further on in John, Jesus is talking with his disciples before he dies, and offers a prayer to his Father in John 17. Since he would no longer physically be among them, he is praying for God to keep his disciples. In John 17:11, Jesus says to God, "… Holy Father, keep them in Thy name, the name which Thou hast given Me, that they may be one, even as we are." Is he praying for his disciples to become God? This shows that he is looking for a oneness of spirit and purpose. He wanted his disciples to be unified in the love of God and in their faith in his sacrifice, as is shown in John 17:17, "Sanctify them in the truth; Thy word is truth."

But what about John 1:1, where John says "the word was God"? This is an interesting text which has been discussed by Bible scholars for quite some time. While most translations do say "the word was God" there are other valid translations of this phrase. The New European Bible Version says, "the word was Divine." Benjamin Wilson’s Emphatic Diaglott interlinear reads, "and a god was the word." So, which is right?

Most Greek scholars will agree that all three are valid translations, and that it depends on the context. The word "God" in this verse is the Greek word "theos" and is used different ways in the New Testament. The word means "mighty one" and Jesus was certainly a mighty one, being the son of God, and being used by God to create all things that were created (which is shown by John 1:3, "All things came into being by him, and apart from him nothing came into being that has come into being.”).

However, Satan is also called theosin 2 Corinthians 4:4, “In whom the god (theos) of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not…” Additionally, people are called theos. “Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, Ye are gods?’” John 10:34,35. (This is from Psalm 82:6.)

A simple "rule of thumb" for understanding Scripture: If all the scriptures on a topic can be harmonized logically without stretching reason, then this is the understanding which is most likely right. As John 1:1 fits with all the other scriptures on this topic with either valid translation, "the word was a god (mighty one)", or "the word was Divine (Godlike)", then these would be more accurate translations of this verse.

This makes perfect sense also, as the "Word" would be the "Spokesman". When a spokesman speaks for a king, he is speaking the king's words…what he says the king said. Jesus said in John 14:24, "…the word which you hear is not mine, but the Father's who sent me." This also showed that Jesus recognized God as greater than himself (John 14:28, "…for my Father is greater than I.").